Are we programmed to overeat?

[spring]

I wonder if we humans are programmed to eat food to the point of overeating?

Is that how we evolved?

Could it be that periods of famine in our history meant that the ones who stocked up on food during the good times i.e. overate, were the ones who survived famine?

Could that be why some people find it so hard to be 'pure' on this diet? That our evolutionary genes are telling us to eat and eat.

And what is the evolutionary reason for our brains to become addicted to certain chemicals in food? Is that because these substances mimic opiates? What about betacarbolines?

In a perfect world where everything is natural and there is abundant tropical fruit and eggs and seafood and no one has discovered cooking or dairy produce, will some people still over-eat and become overweight?

[RRM]

Could it be that periods of famine in our history meant that the ones who stocked up on food during the good times i.e. overate, were the ones who survived famine?

Yes, but if there never is famine, there is no such need anymore.
Its the occasional presence of famine (or fasting / dieting) that triggers this kind of overeating.
If you always make sure to supply your body with sufficient energy, there is no stimulation to overeat (from that source).

Could that be why some people find it so hard to be 'pure' on this diet? That our evolutionary genes are telling us to eat and eat.

I think there is 'a program' in us that says 'to eat plenty', but that the level of making sure to eat enough strongly depends on the presence / absence of famine. So that if you always eat enough, eating in accordance with your energy requirements will be very easy.

what is the evolutionary reason for our brains to become addicted to certain chemicals in food? Is that because these substances mimic opiates? What about betacarbolines?

Both endorphins (opiates) and beta-carbolines produced by the body have essential functions inside our body.
The chemical properties of these molecules (as of all others inside our body) are not unique, so tat when we consume unnatural food, there may be interference.

In a perfect world where everything is natural and there is abundant tropical fruit and eggs and seafood and no one has discovered cooking or dairy produce, will some people still over-eat and become overweight?

Sure, as diversity is of essence within every specie, and thus also being prone to overeat will be represented.

[spring]

Could it be that periods of famine in our history meant that the ones who stocked up on food during the good times i.e. overate, were the ones who survived famine?

Yes, but if there never is famine, there is no such need anymore.
Its the occasional presence of famine (or fasting / dieting) that triggers this kind of overeating.
If you always make sure to supply your body with sufficient energy, there is no stimulation to overeat (from that source).

But you're talking about ideal conditions. Man has not always lived in those conditons. There was the ice age and also really cold places.

Wouldn't the skinny Eskimos have all died out because they didn't have enough body fat to insulate them? So the descendants of Eskimos have a predisposition to overeat?

And why do Europeans have higher metabolism than people acclimatized to living in warmer climates? And does the fact that they have a higher MR automatically mean they should be thinner on average or was that coupled with overeating (like the eskimos) so that they would have a thick layer of fat which would be easily burned by the higher MR to keep the person warm?

And what about enforced famine? not because one is trying to lose weight but because of scarcity? Won't that mean that a person who has lived under those conditions will have a tendency to overeat once they have better access to food?

Doesn't the body 'remember' starvation in the past and will this make them:
1) Overeat even on a Wai type diet
2) Have stronger cravings than other people for betacarboline and opiate type food - cooked food and suchlike?

[RRM]

Wouldn't the skinny Eskimos have all died out because they didn't have enough body fat to insulate them? So the descendants of Eskimos have a predisposition to overeat?

I think its not about overeating here. The extra bodyfat is required to be able to survive; the energy is required, and not consumed in excess of your needs.

why do Europeans have higher metabolism than people acclimatized to living in warmer climates?

To generate more bodyheat.

And does the fact that they have a higher MR automatically mean they should be thinner on average

No. Bodyfat is not the result of burning and eating more, but about eating more than required for burning.

Doesn't the body 'remember' starvation in the past

Yes. Thats is why we advice to always eat enough.